Do these definitions have any practical relevance? explain using examples from the dialogues and or your own experience.

In the Euthyphro Socrates insists on the importance of definition. If one doesn’t know a things definition then one can’t know a thing.

This requirement has led to the charge of the Socratic fallacy; one can use word properly (be a competent language user) without actually knowing the definition of a word.

This issue is still a converted point in the literature. However, putting aside whether Socrates is committed to this fallacy given the events related in the Euthyphro and the Apology is Socrates correct to place such an emphasis on the definition of words? do these definitions have any practical relevance? explain using examples from the dialogues and or your own experience.